On Infinite Speed…

[TheOrangeGuy09]

A quick question: why moving a finite distance in 0 time is infinite speed? While this might sound intuitive, 1/0 is actually undefined.
And we also have that despite multiple 2-A structures being bigger than a single 2-A one is intuitive, it is still not the case because how maths treats it.
Why isn’t it the case with Infinite Speed?

 

[Laviossiii]

You already answered it tho, ∞/0 or ∞/∞ are also undefined and it's equivalent IMO.

 

[TheOrangeGuy09]

You already answered it tho, ∞/0 or ∞/∞ are also undefined and it's equivalent IMO.

The fact that both of them are undefined does not mean they are equal at all, and this does not answer how any finite number/0 = infinity

 

[Greatsage13th]

Get the staff members here

 

[CloverDragon03]

A quick question: why moving a finite distance in 0 time is infinite speed? While this might sound intuitive, 1/0 is actually undefined.

 

[TheOrangeGuy09]

But seriously, 1/0=infinity is a myth. It was caused due to lim x->0 (1/x) = infinity, however this does not mean it will equal infinity once x=0 in a strict arithmetic sense; instead, it represents the idea that the function grows without bound as x gets closer to 0.
Also defining 1/0 as infinity would lead to problems in maths.

 

[CloverDragon03]

Except this is an accepted phenomenon with explanation videos about it. I literally just found one

 

[TheOrangeGuy09]

Except this is an accepted phenomenon with explanation videos about it. I literally just found one

Watch till the end. The video literally explains how this will cause 1+1=1.
As I said, defining any finite number divided by zero as infinity will leas to inconsistencies in maths. One of them is mentioned in the video you sent.

 

[CloverDragon03]

Regardless, that doesn't really change much with how Infinite is defined. I know some sites define traveling a distance in 0 time differently (usually calling it "Inaccessible" or something of the sort), but here that's just put into the same umbrella as Infinite alongside moving an infinite distance in finite time.

To summarize the distinction between it and Immeasurable: speed is either infinite or undefined for Infinite, while time is undefined for Immeasurable speed

 

[TheOrangeGuy09]

So Infinite Speed is not necessarily infinite mathematical sense, and it can be undefined too? Well, fine then ig.

 

[CloverDragon03]

Essentially, yeah. It can be, but it's not limited to that

 

[Eclipso]

But seriously, 1/0=infinity is a myth.

Also defining 1/0 as infinity would lead to problems in maths.

In standard arithmetic, yes, 1/0 isn’t defined. The reason we define it was infinite speed is that, if you can move, say, X distance in N time, then someone that can move X distance in N/2 time is faster.

Hence, if I can move 5 meters in 0 seconds, I am faster than someone that can do that in 1 second, or 0.5 seconds, or 0.25 seconds, …

It is not hard to see I must be faster than any finite speed. Hence, infinite speed.

Additionally, 1/0 does equal infinity in, say, the extended reals.

 

[Hellformer]

But seriously, 1/0=infinity is a myth. It was caused due to lim x->0 (1/x) = infinity, however this does not mean it will equal infinity once x=0 in a strict arithmetic sense; instead, it represents the idea that the function grows without bound as x gets closer to 0.
Also defining 1/0 as infinity would lead to problems in maths.

This limit calculation is partially correct.
Lim (x->0) 1/x is actually undefined. That's because you need to consider both 0+ and 0- values as seperate limits and check whether they approach to the same output.
L1=lim (x->0+) 1/x=+♾
L2=lim (x->0-) 1/x=-♾

L1=/=L2 hence the limit does not exist