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a question about higher dimensional existence

Everything12 said:
No, that's not Higher-Dimensional at all, it's not even 4D.
Click to expand...
Technically if a certain point in the 3rd dimension's x axis and y axis is reached it would reach the 4th dimension isn't it? Just like how anything below the Planck Length is considered to be the 2nd dimension in scientific theories.
 
Just like how anything that can't be measured in a 3D standard is immeasurable by default and on a 4D level
 
Greatsage13th said:
Technically if a certain point in the 3rd dimension's x axis and y axis is reached it would reach the 4th dimension isn't it? Just like how anything below the Planck Length is considered to be the 2nd dimension in scientific theories.
Click to expand...
Not necessarily, no. Some theories like vanishing dimensions do propose that areas below a planck length or a planck volume are lower-dimensional spaces, but this is moreso due to the fact that a main component of them is the idea that systems with higher amounts of energy have less dimensions, so past certain small or large enough points, space is either compressed or decompressed into fewer or more dimensions, respectively.

As you can probably infer already, this is a very specific idea, and dimensional spaces don't actually have to work like that, in principle, so a space doesn't actually "become" higher-dimensional past a certain value. 3-dimensional space itself is already the set of all possible values that can be described using three real numbers, for instance.
 
I do not think that our system allows for higher tiers than High 3-A for being infinite along the 3D-axes of movement.
 
The word immeasurable is just a synonym for infinity, as far as I am concerned. However, there are countable and uncountable infinities.
 
I do not know. Possibly, but Ultima or DontTalkDT would have to evaluate it.
 
The answer is no and the reason is that there isn't any reason why it should be.

Also, the way you use the adjective 'immeasurable' on the noun 'axis' together makes no sense. Talking about an "immeasurable axis" makes no sense. Talking about a 4D axis makes no sense either.


Does this have relevance for any specific verse for that matter?
 
DontTalkDT said:
The answer is no and the reason is that there isn't any reason why it should be.

Also, the way you use the adjective 'immeasurable' on the noun 'axis' together makes no sense. Talking about an "immeasurable axis" makes no sense. Talking about a 4D axis makes no sense either.


Does this have relevance for any specific verse for that matter?
Click to expand...
yes. it involves the immeasurable distances between the earth (mortal realm, secular world) and heaven with both being separated by the sky as its dualistic boundary, followed by the immeasurable distance of the 1st heaven to the 2nd heaven that are already beyond the space-time of the mortal realm till the 33rd heaven with each level of heaven having a higher level of immeasurable than the last viewing the ones below as finite while.
 
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essentially its similar to the cosmology used by gods from magi but instead of being confined into spatial temporal cubes, its cosmology is defined as layers of spatial temporal realms
 
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Thank you for helping out DontTalkDT. Sorry about if it is comparatively irrelevant.

@All

Should I close this thread now?
 
I doubt that DT is interested in this anymore.
 
Well, it is true. This does not seem important enough. Sorry.
 
I don't know how its similar to Magi or what this cube is? Which verse is this anyway?
 
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